MFA Follow On Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• The Surge Boot's primary function is to what?
• Rendezvous Alpha (Anchor) is characterized by which feature?
• Which control stick positions the ruddevators on the KC-135?
• What does the sterile cockpit policy require during critical phases of flight?
• Which device measures the boom's angular orientation about the vertical axis?
• What is the primary purpose of Sleeper Shoring?
• Which AFSC prefix corresponds to Formal Training Instructor?
• In Custodial Transfer, how long must a copy of receipt be kept?
• DD Form 1384 provides what?
• Which statement best describes the safest course of action if misalignment persists and safe contact cannot be established?
• AFMAN 24-604 designates the primary preparation and certification authority for what?
• Which prefix is associated with an instructor role that trains aircrews in flight operations?
• Which statement is true about Tailchase in Rendezvous Foxtrot?
• What do locks prevent in the pallet system?
• Rendezvous Foxtrot (Sequenced) is described as which of the following?
• Before releasing MHE, what must be verified?
• Which form carries the load sequencing information for air cargo shipments?
• Which statement best describes an Overpack?
• Which term refers to a key developmental position in the AFSC structure?
• Which component is located at the top of the boom and prevents damage during stowage?
• Which form is associated with labeling classified cargo without including classified data?
• MB-1 Chain & Device capacity is
• Which set lists the correct load factors for forward, aft/lateral, and vertical directions?
• Before pallets/platforms are released, what must be checked?
• What is the policy regarding confidentiality of Air Force communications?
• Which of the following is a method of Rendezvous Foxtrot?
• The cargo nets have a restraint rating of what?
• What is the defined Slow and Stable speed?
• Under the Air Refueling System Warning, when will refueling terminate?
• On KC-46, which control is the primary flight control for the boom?
• During air refueling, when is the boom operator permitted to move the boom?
• Which option lists the correct load factors for forward, aft/lateral, and vertical directions?
• Which acronym pair correctly matches TAW and OP WGT?
• Barrier boards minimum plywood thickness and restraint method?
• What does the Air Refueling Limitations Caution state about azimuth and elevation?
• Which statement best captures the safety warning regarding moving vehicles?
• What is the minimum tine length required for a forklift?
• What must occur before restraints are removed?
• Which AFSC prefix corresponds to Evaluator?
• Which document provides guidance for hazardous materials packaging, preparation, and transport by air?
• In which drivetrain configuration should low gear use be applied?
• PSI expressed to
• A full cargo net set includes how many sides and tops?
• Which statement about symmetrical restraints is correct?
• Bridge Shoring is used to
• Palletized Cargo is defined as what?
• In tailchase departure, which aircraft takes off first?
• Who is responsible for rendezvous in a standard air-to-air refueling Rendezvous?
• MB-2 Chain & Device capacity is
• Which indicator shows the boom’s elevation in degrees?
• What are the two methods of Rendezvous Foxtrot?
• Which control is used to telescope the boom on the KC-46?
• POP stands for which term?
• What are the dimensions of a 463L cargo pallet and its maximum load capacity?
• What does MARSA stand for?
• Under which condition should refueling be terminated according to Air Refueling Weather Limitations?
• For a 2-3 pallet train up to 96 inches tall, what is the weight limit?
• What must the boom operator monitor and be prepared to do to prevent nozzle binding?
• What must the boom operator ensure about the boom during the contact sequence?
• Prior to restraints being removed or retracted, what must the Load Team/Driver have?
• What action must the boom take to avoid damage when connecting to the receptacle?
• The 60K-Loader has a weight capacity of 60,000 pounds and can carry how many pallets?
• What is the guidance for backing vehicles with respect to aircraft?
• Which aircraft are associated with the largest bow waves?
• According to the Tanker Communications Caution, when will AAR not be conducted?
• DD Form 1385 is used for what purpose?
• What is the load rating for a single bridge plate and for two plates on an axle?
• Which action is required before pallets/platforms can be released?
• Which lever controls the rate of extension and retraction of the boom on the KC-135?
• What is the azimuth envelope limit?
• What is the fuel requirement for Engine Powered Support Equipment?
• Which form serves as the shipping address label attached to each piece of cargo?
• Which equipment has a 10,000 lb capacity?
• Which AFSC prefix corresponds to Aircrew Instructor?
• Who is responsible for all cargo documentation and signatures?
• What does rolling shoring protect?
• How many CGU-1B straps are specified for the cargo nets, and how are they distributed?
• Which term describes a wave of air produced by the bow of an aircraft, proportional to its size, speed, and shape?
• The '999' cargo designation indicates what?
• The extension envelope limit is specified in which unit?
• In boom refueling, the pre-contact position is defined as the boom being how far behind the stable aircraft with zero rate of closure?
• Deviations permit the movement of which operation?
• Who approves waivers to packaging or compatibility requirements for cargo?
• Which form would you use to document the load/sequence details for air shipments?
• How far from the aircraft should all major adjustments be made?
• If spillage occurs during contact, what should be done?
• DoD Regulation 4500.9R, DTR governs the use of what?
• What is the empty weight of a 463L pallet?
• What is the function of the bridge plate?
• During contact, which of the following is a key responsibility of the MFAs?
• Which form identifies pallet information, net and gross weight?
• What is the interval between lock indents on the 463L pallet?
• Which component is used to set the rate of boom extension and retraction?
• Which light indicates the A/R system is ready for contact?
• Which combination of envelope values matches the limits?
• What is the fuel level limit for boats and other watercraft under Chapter 3?
• Which control positions the ruddevators on the KC-135?
• Which document identifies an entire shipment and is never reused?
• Prove, Drogue, and BDA pre-contact position is defined as what distance with zero rate of closure?
• When may a vehicle back up near an aircraft?
• OP WGT stands for which of the following?
• In load restraints, which statement best defines the Weakest Link?
• For boats and watercraft, what is the allowed fuel level prior to loading?
• Which item has a capacity of 25,000 lb?
• Rendezvous Echo uses which type of timing arrangement to position the tanker for opportunistic rendezvous?
• Which of the following is true about deviations?
• What do restraint rails provide in terms of restraint and pallet accommodation?
• What is the extension envelope limit?
• What does Nose Cold indicate about the radar status?
• What is the fuel level limit for vehicles and self-propelled equipment under Chapter 3?
• Concentrated Cargo is defined as which of the following?
• The 463L pallet has how many tiedown rings and what is the capacity per ring?
• During contact, how should MFAs adjust airspeed and altitude?
• Rendezvous Foxtrot is used when the tanker and receiver operate from the same base.
• On pressurized fuel systems, what position should the cap be placed in?
• Which indicator shows the extension of the boom in feet?
• TAW stands for which of the following?
• Which device indicates the boom's horizontal orientation in degrees?
• Which light indicates tanker and receiver have broken contact, momentarily?
• What is the function of the device located at the top of the boom to prevent structural damage during stowage?
• The 25K-Loader has a capacity of 25,000 pounds and can handle how many pallets?
• Which statement best describes the Sterile Cockpit policy during critical flight phases?
• For a single pallet up to 96 inches tall, what is the weight limit?
• What defines the Air-To-Air Refueling Envelope?
• What does the Nose Cold setting indicate about radar status?
• In the contact sequence, which statement best describes the final extension into the receptacle?
• During contact, MFAs must constantly monitor which of the following?
• Which statement about visibility during KC-46 contact operations is true?
• What term describes the lateral position of the boom in degrees?
• DD Form 1387-2 is used for what type of cargo?
• Concentrated Cargo is described as which of the following?
• In Rules of Restraint - Symmetrical, which statement best describes the requirement?
• What is the elevation envelope limit?
• What does Switches Safe indicate in weapon safety procedures?
• If barrier boards are taller than 30 inches, which restraint is required?
• Which type of shoring MUST be used if rolling shoring is employed?
• The Transportation Control Number identifies which of the following?
• What action is required for engine powered non-wheeled support equipment regarding fuel level under Chapter 3?
• Which shoring extends the loading ramp and decreases the loading angle?
• What are the types of mail listed in the material?
• Which statement about cryogenic venting is true?
• How many copies of the Shipper's Declaration for Dangerous Goods are typically prepared?
• Under what conditions can the standard warning be waived?
• MICAP/VVIP relates to what type of items?
• When should MFAs initiate a disconnect or breakaway?
• Which AFSC prefix corresponds to Key Developmental Position?
• What is the fuel limit for Helicopters and other aircraft?
• Which statement describes the Rules of Restraint most accurately?
• Which role has authority to start or resume loading operations?
• Which shoring distributes load to aircraft treadways?
• How many people marshal at a time?
• Which component uses inflated rubber material to dampen fuel surges during offloads?
• CGU-1/B Cargo Strap has a capacity of which value?
• Who is authorized to start or resume loading operations?
• What gear should be used when applicable?
• What characterizes a controlled brute disconnect?
• What action is required for engine powered non-wheeled support equipment regarding fuel level under Chapter 3 (alternate wording)?
• Rendezvous Echo is characterized as which type of anchor?
• In simultaneous refueling, what action indicates the start of fuel flow?
• What are the two types of brute disconnect in air refueling operations?
• Which shoring is intended to prevent load movement?
• Under the Rules of Restraint, lead off in which direction?
• Which light indicates contact has been made and fuel can be transferred?
• On which form would you place the delivery date indicator for a 999 shipment?
• Under which conditions is contact not attempted due to visibility issues?
• What must the marshaller ensure to prevent injuries?
• POP is primarily used to carry hazardous materials. Which statement best describes this?
• Who approves waivers to packaging or compatibility requirements?
• What elevation angle defines the threshold for a boom pullout during a controlled brute disconnect?
• What is Bow Wave?
• What is the primary flight control for the boom on the KC-46?
• What is the purpose of loading ramps?
• The component intended to prevent damage to boom components during stowage is called?
• Area expressed to
• Which AFSC prefix corresponds to Advanced Tactics Instructor?
• During MPRS/WARPs, what initiates fuel flow?
• Which indicator shows the elevation of the boom in degrees?
• Which form is the Load/Sequence Breakdown Sheet?
• During Tactical, Contingency, or Emergency operations, which description applies to hazmat preparation, packing, and certification requirements?
• What is the fuel level limit for Vehicles and self-propelled equipment?
• In Accompanied Departure/Buddy Climb, who takes off first?
• If moderate turbulence is encountered during refueling, what action should be taken?
• During a refueling operation, if the receiver is misaligned or at risk of exceeding limits, what is the recommended action?
• An Overpack is best described as which?
• Restraint Criteria require restraining for the highest reasonably expected force in which direction?
• Cargo nets are made from what material?
• What must be done with cryogenic liquid storage tanks during transport?
• What is the fuel level requirement for Boats and other watercraft?
• Restraint Criteria require restraints to be placed in which directions?
• What is the maximum load rating for a bridge plate?